Environment UPSC prelims previous year questions

Environment UPSC prelims previous year question

Questions related to the environment are very important for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination as they are asked frequently and have a high weightage in the exam. Here are some previous year questions related to the environment that have been asked in the prelims and are important:

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Environment and Ecology for UPSC Prelims 2022 are given below:

 

1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

2. Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake:                      Location

  1. Hokera Wetland                    Punjab
  2. Renuka Wetland                   Himachal Pradesh
  3. Rudrasagar Lake                  Tripura
  4. Sasthamkotta                        Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

3.“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a :

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

4. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
  2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
  3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
  4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
  5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1,2, 4 and 5

(b) 1,3 and 4 only

(c) 2,3 and 5 only

(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5

5. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

6. In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following

  1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
  2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
  3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
  4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2 only

7. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a fungus.
  2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
  3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

8. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

  1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
  2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
  3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
  4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

9. Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer

(b) Indian Nightjar

(c) Spoonbill

(d) White Ibis

10. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

  1. Alfalfa
  2. Amaranth
  3. Chickpea
  4. Clover
  5. Purslane (Kulfa)
  6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

(b) Development of gardens genetically modified flora using

(d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

13. Consider the following statements:

  1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation.
  2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ?

(a) Central Water Commission

(b) Central Ground Water Board

(c) Central Ground Water Authority

(d) National Water Development Agency

15. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

16. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(c) Ignoring the consequences disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

17. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements :

  1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
  2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
  3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

18. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of

fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab

(d) Spider

19. Consider the following:

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. Nitrogen oxide
  3. Ozone
  4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Candidates can download the UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Papers for GS I and GS II from the linked page.

UPSC Prelims Environment Answers Key 2022

1. b11. a
2. b12. c
3. a13. b
4.b14. c
5. d15. a
6.b16. a
7. c17. a
8. a18. a
9. a19. b
10. a

prelims 2021 Environment questions

 

1. Statement 1:
The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World
Statement 2:
Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

2. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

3. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

4. Consider the following animals
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

5. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests
3. It is a legally binding international declaration
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception

Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 5

6. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

7. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

(a) Catfish
(b) Octopus
(c) Oyster
(d) Pelican

8. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?
(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Phosphorus cycle
(d) Sulphur cycle

9. Which of the following are detritivores?

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Seahorse
4. Woodlice
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

10. The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for

(a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
(b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
(c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
(d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

11. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of

(a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry
(b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention
(c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
(d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources

13. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

14. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:

1. It is a product of oil refineries
2. Some industries use it to generate power
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. What is blue carbon?

(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
(d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

16. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4

UPSC Prelims Environment Answers Key 2021

UPSC Prelims Environment Questions 2021 – Answer Key 
1. D9. C
2. D10. A
3. B11. D
4. D12. A
5. D13. D
6. B14. D
7. C15. A
8. C16. C
Environment UPSC prelims previous year question

Previous Year Environment and Ecology Questions 2020

Q 1. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear

Transfer” is used for

(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm

(b) genetic modification of sperm-producing cells

(c) development of stem cells into functional embryos

(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Q 2. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

  1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
  2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
  3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
  4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 3. Consider the following activities:

  1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
  2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
  3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully

carried out by using drones?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 4. Consider the following statements:

  1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
  2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
  3. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between

plant and animal cells?

  1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not
  2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do
  3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole vacuoles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 6. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?

  1. Automobile exhaust
  2. Tobacco smoke
  3. Wood burning
  4. Using varnished wooden furniture
  5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q 7. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

  1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
  2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months
  3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only
  4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q 8. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

  1. Nagarhole National Park
  2. Papikonda National Park
  3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
  4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 9. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are

(a) Birds

(b) Primates

(c) Reptiles

(d) Amphibians

Q 10. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

(a) Kanha National Park

(b) Manas National Park

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Q 11. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

  1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. Gangotri National Park
  3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Q 12. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

  1. Copper slag
  2. Cold mix asphalt technology
  3. Geotextiles
  4. Hot mix asphalt technology
  5. Portland cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 4 and 5 only

(d) 1 and 5 only

Q 13. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

  1. Construction of base road
  2. Improvement of agricultural soil
  3. Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 14. Consider the following statements:

  1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
  2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
  3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 15. What is the use of biochar in farming?

  1. ‘Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
  2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen fixing microorganisms.
  3. When biochar is a part of the growing- medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 16. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act,

1972, what is the implication?

(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant

(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances

(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant

(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem

Q 17. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

  1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop
  2. Without the need for the nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
  3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 18. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as

raw materials for the production of biofuels?

  1. Cassava
  2. Damaged wheat grains
  3. Groundnut seeds
  4. Horse gram
  5. Rotten potatoes
  6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Q 19. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2, emissions in a given year

(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels

(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place

(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth

Q 20. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?

  1. Crop diversification
  2. Legume intensification
  3. Tensiometer use
  4. Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 21. Consider the following minerals:

  1. Bentonite
  2. Chromite
  3. Kyanite
  4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q 22. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March.
  2. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 23. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are

correct?

  1. It is spread over two districts.
  2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
  3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 24. Consider the following statements :

  1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
  2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
  3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Q 25. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

(a) Corbett

(b) Ranthambore

(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

(d) Sunderbans

Prelims Environment and Ecology Solutions 2020

Prelims Environment and Ecology Solutions 2020
Q 1. (d)Q 2. (d)Q 3. (d)
Q 4. (d)Q 5. (c)Q 6. (d)
Q 7. (a)Q 8. (c)Q 9. (a)
Q 10. (a)Q 11. (a)Q 12. (a)
Q 13. (d)Q 14. (d)Q 15. (d)
Q 16. (a)Q 17. (d)Q 18. (a)
Q 19. (a)Q 20. (d)Q 21. (d)
Q 22. (b)Q 23. (c)Q 24. (b)
Q 25. (c)  

Prelims Environment and Ecology Questions 2019

 

Q 1. Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber

(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

Q 2. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Q 3. Consider the following statements:

  1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only
  2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only
  3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 4. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?

(a) Creating artificial rains in some regions

(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

(d) Reducing the global warming

Q 5. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve

Q 6. Consider the following statements:

  1. Some species of turtles are herbivores
  2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
  3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores
  4. Some species of snakes are viviparous

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 7. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Q 8. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

  1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
  2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
  3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 9. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

  1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits
  2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor
  3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 10. Consider the following:

  1. Carbon monoxide
  2. Methane
  3. Ozone
  4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q 11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture

(b) preservatives in processed foods

(c) fruit-ripening agents

(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

Q 12. Consider the following statements:

  1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India
  2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention
  3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 13. Consider the following statements:

  1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment
  2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment
  3. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 14. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation

(c) The Earth’s surface would have a low temperature on cloudy nights

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level

Q 15. Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India
  2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board
  3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 16. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species

(c) a cave system found in North-East India

(d) a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent

Q 17. Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

  1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
  2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 18. Consider the following statements:

  1. As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas
  2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce
  3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q 19. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]

(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) biodiesel

(c) pulp for the paper industry

(d) textile fibre

Q 20. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]

buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

  1. The main advantage of the use of HCNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions
  2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions
  3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses
  4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Prelims Environment and Ecology Solutions 2019

Prelims Environment and Ecology Solutions 2019
Q 1. (a)Q 2. (d)Q 3. (a)
Q 4. (d)Q 5. (a)Q 6. (d)
Q 7. (a)Q 8. (d)Q 9. (d)
Q 10. (d)Q 11. (a)Q 12. (b)
Q 13. (d)Q 14. (b)Q 15. (c)
Q 16. (b)Q 17. (c)Q 18. (b)
Q 19. (d)Q 20. (b)

FAQ

 

Why is the environment an important topic for prelims?

The environment is an important topic for prelims because it is a subject that is relevant to a wide range of issues and current events, including climate change, conservation, pollution, and sustainable development. Additionally, questions related to the environment are frequently included in various competitive exams, including the Civil Services Examination, as they assess the candidate’s knowledge and understanding of key environmental issues and their implications.

What are some of the important environmental topics that are usually asked in prelims exams?

Some of the important environmental topics that are usually asked in prelims exams include climate change, air pollution, water pollution, solid waste management, biodiversity conservation, environmental legislation, and sustainable development.

How can I prepare for the environment section in prelims exams?

To prepare for the environment section in prelims exams, it is important to have a strong understanding of key environmental concepts, issues, and current events. This can be achieved through a combination of reading relevant textbooks and journals, watching educational videos, and practicing mock exams. Additionally, it is helpful to stay up-to-date on current events related to the environment and to participate in relevant discussions and debates.

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